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What does it mean for a function to be well-defined? I encountered this term in an exercise asking to check if a linear transformation is well-defined.

Logi
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AndrePoole
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1 Answers1

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All functions are well-defined; but when we define a function, we don't always know (without doing some work) that our definition really does give us a function. We say the function (or, more precisely, the specification of the function) is 'well-defined' if it does.

That is, $f : A \to B$ is well-defined if for each $a \in A$ there is a unique $b \in B$ with $f(a)=b$.

This often comes up when defining functions in terms of representatives of equivalence classes, or in terms of how an element of the domain is written. For example, the 'function' $f : \mathbb{Z} \to \mathbb{Z}$ defined by $$f(n) = \text{the first digit of the decimal expansion of}\ n\ \text{after the decimal point}$$ is not a well-defined function: we get $f(1)=0$ and $f(0.999\dots)=9$, even though $0.999\dots = 1$. We could turn it into a well-defined function by saying that the chosen decimal expansion must not have recurring $9$s.

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    @AndrePoole: It depends how you define it... it is well-defined as long as you declare something like $$\mathtt{abs}(x) = \text{the greatest integer}\ \le x$$ This only depends on the value of $x$, not its representation as a number, so it's well-defined. – Clive Newstead Dec 14 '13 at 20:02
  • cheers, you made it very clear – AndrePoole Dec 14 '13 at 20:05
  • Very good example as well as the presentation of what makes a function/map well-defined - this is the way it was taught to me when I also came across this same predicament. – Procore Sep 10 '16 at 20:02
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    @AndrePoole Note, that the inverse of statement 1 is not true: while for every a there is just one b (or: you only get one result when throwing a into the formula), this b could be the result of several (or all) a. b=a² is well defined, but b=1 is the answer to both a=1 and a=-1. – Trish Nov 13 '17 at 09:07