Let $R$ be an integral domain and $P$ a prime ideal. Let $x$ be an element such that $xP^{m-1}=P^m$ for some $m>0$.
Is $P$ generated by $x$?
Let $R$ be an integral domain and $P$ a prime ideal. Let $x$ be an element such that $xP^{m-1}=P^m$ for some $m>0$.
Is $P$ generated by $x$?
Let $R=\mathbb{Z}[\sqrt{-3}]$ and let $P=(2,1+\sqrt{-3})$. Then $2P=P^2$ but $P$ is not generated by $2$.
An example where $R$ is the coordinate ring of a variety would be $R=k[x,y]/(y^2-x^3)$, and $P=(x,y)$, where we have $P^2=xP$, but $P$ is not generated by $x$.
If the domain is not integrally closed then counterexamples may be obtained via non-integral witnesses $\rm\:w = a/b,\:$ which yield $\rm\: b\:(a,b)^{n-1}= (a,b)^n,\:$ but $\rm\:(a,b) \ne (b).\:$ Zev's example is a special case. See this answer for more (from my May 22, 2009 sci.math post).