Hint: Assume (C, +, *, <) is an ordered field for some order relation <. Then consider i is not equal to 0. One has either i>0 or i<0. In either case, find a contradiction.
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3Yes, go ahead. You are almost there. – Hagen von Eitzen Dec 08 '13 at 21:25
2 Answers
Hint: what happens when you multiply both sides of the inequality by $i$?
Clarification:
To begin, suppose that $i>0$. Then since $i>0$, we can multiply both sides of the inequality by $i$ to get $i^2 >0$ (the inequality doesn't flip because $i>0$). Why is this a contradiction?
Now, what happens when we assume $i<0$?

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I've added to my answer in an attempt to make what I meant clearer. Let me know if you're still confused. – Ben Grossmann Dec 08 '13 at 22:05
Assume to the contrary that one can define a total ordering $>$ on $\mathbb{C}$. It is obvious that $i \neq 0$. So we need check if $i>0$ or $0>i$ are possible.
Case 1: Assume that $i>0$. By definition and our assumption, we have that
$i\cdot i =-1> i \cdot 0 = 0$
which is impossible.
Case 2: Assume that $0>i$. Then by definition and our assumption,
$0+(-i)=-i>i+(-i)=0$
But then we notice that
$0\cdot (-i)=0>i\cdot(-i)=1$
which is impossible.

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