Suppose $F$ is differentiable $\forall x>0$ and $F(xy) = F(x)+F(y)$, $ \forall x,y>0$. Prove that if $F$ is not the zero function, then $\exists$ $ a>0$ such that: $F(x)=\log_a(x)$, $\forall x>0$. I seem to be doing fine except on getting the base $a$ for the log. So far I have that $F'(x)=\frac{F'(1)}{x}$. I know from calculus that $\int\frac{1}{t}dt=\ln(t)$. How can I get the base to be $F'(1)$ instead of $e$?
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1Hint: $\frac{\ln(x)}{\ln(a)} = \log_a(x)$ – Chris Janjigian Dec 08 '13 at 17:40
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1See http://math.stackexchange.com/a/2091337/72031 for a more detailed analysis with minimal assumptions. – Paramanand Singh Jan 17 '17 at 06:07
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You might find some info on this functional equation also here: Overview of basic facts about Cauchy functional equation – Martin Sleziak Jan 17 '17 at 06:36
3 Answers
Since $F(xy)=F(x)+F(y)\implies F(1)=0$ we have $F(x)=F(x)-F(1)=\int_1^x (F'(1)/t)dt=F'(1)\ln x =\log_A(x)$ where $$A=\exp {(1/F'(1))}.$$ Because for $x>1$ we have $$\exp(\ln x)=x=A^{\log_A(x)}=[\exp (\ln A)]^{\log_A(x)}=$$ $$=\exp (\;(\ln A)(\log_A(x)\;).$$ So $\log_A(x)=(\ln x)\cdot (1/\ln A).$
In this case we have $1/\ln A=F'(1),$ that is, $\ln A=1/F'(1).$
For example if $F'(1)=10$ the base $A$ is $e^{1/10}.$

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You still have to prove that under the given conditions $F'(1)\ne 0$, so $A$ is always well defined. It's of course trivial to do given the results user114369 already got, but is has to be done. – celtschk Jan 17 '17 at 06:49
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You can conclude that$$F(x)=F'(1)\ln x+C$$where $C=0$ since $F(1)=0$ ( let $x=y=1$ ) therefore $$F(x)=F'(1)\ln x={\log_e x\over \log_e e^{F'(1)}}=\log_{e^{F'(x)}}x$$hence you can write $$a=e^{F'(1)}$$ where $F'(1)$ is arbitrarily any real number.

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$$a^x=\left(e^{\text{log}(a)}\right)^x = e^{\text{log}(a)x}$$ $$\text{log}(a^x)=x\text{log}(a)$$ $$\text{log}_a(a^x)=x$$
Extrapolating from here, we have
$$\text{log}_a(x) = \frac {\text{log}(x)}{\text{log}(a)}$$
It shouldn't be too hard to get your answer from this.

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