In a textbook I'm reading, the author states without proof that $$ \zeta(s,mz) = \frac{1}{m^{s}} \sum_{k=0}^{m-1} \zeta \left(s,z+\frac{k}{m} \right), \tag{1}$$ where $\zeta(s,z) $ is the Hurwitz zeta function
Supposedly, this isn't hard to prove. But is it possible to prove $(1)$ using simply the series definition of the Hurwitz zeta function, that is, $ \displaystyle\zeta(s,z) = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(z+n)^{s}}$?
It might be interesting to note that the polygamma functions (excluding the digamma function) can be expressed in terms of the Hurwitz zeta function.
So from $(1)$ we can derive the multiplication formula $$\psi_{n}(mz) = \frac{1}{m^{n+1}} \sum_{k=0}^{m-1}\psi_{n} \left(z+ \frac{k}{m} \right) , \quad n \in \mathbb{Z}_{>0}.$$