I at a loss on how to prove $$ \binom{n}{k} = (-1)^k \binom{k-n-1}{k} \tag{1} $$.
I want to prove this because it appears to be a fundamental result, that is applied liberally in combinatorics problems such as Proving $\sum\limits_{m=0}^M \binom{m+k}{k} = \binom{k+M+1}{k+1}$, especially in this answer.
In this sketch of a pr oof, I start with the RHS of $\large \text{(1)}$, namely $(-1)^k\binom{k-n-1}{k}$.
(I also assume $k \ge 0, n \ge 0, k \le n$, neither of which may be necessary, however, it's easier for me to think about Binomial Coefficients and factorials with positive integer arguments.)
Then, in a series of algebraic steps that start with $(-1)^k\binom{k-n-1}{k}$, I attempt to reach a result that shows these are equal to $\binom{n}{k}$ as follows
$$\begin{align} &(-1)^k\binom{k-n-1}{k} = \frac{(k-n-1)!}{k!(k-n-1-k)!}(-1)^k = (-1)^k\frac{(k-n-1)!}{k!(-n-1)!} \\ \end{align}$$
But, under these assumptions $k \le n, k \ge 0, n \ge 0$, I don't know how to make sense of what $(-1)^k \large \frac{(k-n-1)!}{k!(-n-1)!}$ simplifies to, since it seems to me that, $(k-n-1)!$ is the factorial of a negative integer, which evaluates to ComplexInfinity
.
So, my main question is how to begin computing $(-1)^k \large \frac{(k-n-1)!}{k!(-n-1)!}$ when you know that for some values of $x, n$, that $(k-n-1)!$ = ComplexInfinity
or $(-n-1)! = $ ComplexInfinity
One approach I tried was to go back to the RHS of $\large (1)$: $\small (-1)^k \large \frac{(k-n-1)!}{k!(-n-1)!}\left(\frac{-1}{-1} \right)$ which almost seems helpful, except I'm not sure that, in general, $(-1)(k-n-1)! = (n+1-k)!$
I rewrote the above with the $\Gamma$ function instead of factorials. Does this approach lead to the correct solution, where I fell short with factorials?
$$\begin{align} &= \frac{\Gamma(k-n)}{\Gamma(k+1)\Gamma(-n)}(-1)^k \end{align}$$