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I need to show that $n$ divides $\phi(a^n -1)$ where $a, n$ are positive integer without using concepts of abstract algebra

I know that $$a^n\equiv 1\pmod {a^n-1}$$

How do I proceed from there?

MathMan
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    I am not sure what "without using concepts of abstract algebra" means. – Igor Rivin Dec 05 '13 at 16:25
  • Do you consider the concept of "order of an element $a$ module $m$" to be from abstract algebra? – Pablo Rotondo Dec 05 '13 at 16:28
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    I am familiar with the concept of Order of an element with respect to pure number theory, but i have not yet studied groups and related concepts. – MathMan Dec 05 '13 at 16:35
  • I know that order of an element a with respect to modulo n such that gcd (a,n) = 1 is the smallest number x which satisifies $a^x equiv 1 mod n$ and that a,a^2, ... , a^x all are incongruent modulo n $ – MathMan Dec 05 '13 at 17:15
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    Duplicate : http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/564925/prove-that-n-mid-phian-1?lq=1 ? – lab bhattacharjee Dec 05 '13 at 18:06
  • Well spotted duplicate, lab! I had a feeling that something like this has been posted here earlier. That duplicate has no answers, so it will difficult to use it though :-/ – Jyrki Lahtonen Dec 05 '13 at 18:14

3 Answers3

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In general (for $\gcd (a,m)=1)$, if $a_k≡1 \mod m $, then $ord_m(a) ~∣~k.$ In particular, since $a^{ϕ(m)}≡1(\mod m)$, we have $ord_m(a)∣ϕ(m)$. We have $ord_{(a^n−1)}a=n.$

Proof: Let there exist $d< n$ such that $ a^d ≡ 1 \mod(a^n-1) $ .

=> $ (a^n-1)~ |~ (a^d -1)$ which is not possible since $d < n $.

=> $ord _{a^n−1} =n.$

=> $n~|~ \phi(a^n-1)$

MathMan
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Hints/plan of attack:

Undoubtedly you can show that $a$ and $a^n-1$ are coprime (their gcd=1).

We are to count the number of integers $b, 0<b<a^n-1$ such that $\gcd(b,a^n-1)=1$.

Show that if $b$ is such an integer, and $b_1$ is the remainder of $ab$ when divided by $a^n-1$, then $b_1$ also has the property that $\gcd(b_1,a^n-1)=1$.

Now, given such a $b=b_0$, we can form a sequence of numbers $b_1,b_2,\ldots$ such that $b_k$ is the remainder of $ba^k$. Show that the numbers $b_0,b_1,\ldots,b_{n-1}$ are all distinct, but $b_n=b_0$. Thus we have a list of $n$ integers $b_0,b_1,\ldots,b_{n-1}$ all coprime to $a^n-1$.

We can build such lists of $n$ integers starting from any integer coprime to $a^n-1$. Prove that any two such lists have empty intersection.

Well, this proves the claim, doesn't it?

Jyrki Lahtonen
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The order of the multiplicative group mod $a^n-1$ is $\phi(a^n-1),$ which (together with your start) proves your statement, but I assume that since the word "group" is used, this is not the proof asked for.

Igor Rivin
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