My question is related to this as I posted earlier. But this time, we drop certain conditions:
Suppose $f:[a,b]\to\mathbb{R}$ be continuous and there exists a sequence $(\alpha_n)_{n=1}^{\infty}$ with $\alpha_n\to 0$ such that for all $x\in(a,b)$:
$$\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{f(x+\alpha_n)+f(x-\alpha_n)-2f(x)}{\alpha_n^2}=0\quad (*)$$
Does this imply $f$ is linear? i.e. $f(x)=ax+b$.
I try to prove that actually $(*)$ holds for any sequence which converges to zero, then we can use the argument in the problem I posted earlier. I am not quite sure if I am right. If this statement is false, I would be very curious to see a counter example.