There's a question in Herstein:
Prove that the ring $R$ of $2\times 2$ matrices defined over $\Bbb{Q}$ contains only two ideals: $(0)$ and $R$.
This seems to say that if I take any non-zero element, say $a=\begin{pmatrix} 1&1\\1&1\end{pmatrix}$, then $aR=R$.
This implies that for any $\begin{pmatrix} p&q\\r&s\end{pmatrix}\in R$, there exists $\begin{pmatrix} f&g\\k&l\end{pmatrix}\in R$ such that $\begin{pmatrix} f&g\\k&l\end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix} 1&1\\1&1\end{pmatrix}=\begin{pmatrix} p&q\\r&s\end{pmatrix}$.
It is clear that such a matrix $\begin{pmatrix} f&g\\k&l\end{pmatrix}$ need not exist in $R$, as the system of equations $f+g=p$ and $f+g=q$ does not have a solution unless $p=q$.
Is th question wrong then?
Thanks in advance!