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I found this on MathOverflow:

$$e^i = (e^i)^{(2\pi/2\pi)} = (e^{2\pi i})^{1/2\pi} = 1^{1/2\pi} = > 1.$$

I first saw this one many years ago, written on the wall of a bathroom stall in the Princeton University math department.

I don't know a whole lot about Euler's identity and related topics. Why is this proof false?

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  • Taking the principle solution is very important. – Alec Teal Nov 27 '13 at 16:30
  • This is indeed one of the more interesting fake proofs, but this subject has already been discussed, look here. ;-) – BIS HD Nov 27 '13 at 16:28
  • Oh. Yes, this is a duplicate - I'll close my question. – Newb Nov 27 '13 at 16:30
  • So now not only links count as answers, but MSE links do so too? What's the point of duplicates, then?I disagree with posting this as an answer, but that doesn't merit my down vote. However I'm down voting on account of the up votes. – Git Gud Nov 27 '13 at 17:03
  • @GitGud Thanks for the downvote. :-D Strange way of flagging an answer as a duplicate though. Maybe it is just enough to flag it next time?! - But thanks to your downvote I'm not loosing too much reputation. – BIS HD Nov 27 '13 at 20:16
  • @BISHD The reputation loss due to the downvoted was reversed on account of the answer being deleted. – Git Gud Nov 27 '13 at 22:56

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