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Is there any simple form for following question?

$m=1^k+2^k+\cdots+n^k$

Jeremy Upsal
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sara
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2 Answers2

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See Faulhaber's formula, for instance.

Lucian
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As a follow-up to Lucian's answer, you might also like to take a look at the proof of Faulhaber's formula on planetmath to see how those Bernoulli numbers manage to sneak into the discussion, since it looks like the Wikipedia article doesn't go into much detail on that point.

Short answer: It's because Bernoulli numbers are defined as the coefficients in the exponential generating function $$\frac{x}{e^x - 1} = \sum_{k = 0}^\infty B_k \frac{x^k}{k!}.$$

The crazy cool thing is that this generating function, and slight variations, crop up surprisingly often in various higher math contexts, so the Bernoulli numbers do too!

Here's just a sampling:

  • Note: I'll happily remove these last (rather technically oriented) links out of my answer-comment if other community members think I should. This just seemed like a natural opportunity to draw attention to the fact that those funny coefficients appearing in Faulhaber's formula are quite certainly not just some sort of isolated curiosity. – Dan Kneezel Nov 15 '13 at 22:04
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    Maybe this interests you, Dan. – Pedro Nov 15 '13 at 22:20
  • Ooh. Very nice. Thanks for the link, @Pedro! – Dan Kneezel Nov 15 '13 at 22:29