For a function $f\in L^1(\mathbb{R})$, its Fourier transform is defined as $$\hat{f}(y)=\int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x)e^{-ixy}dx$$
For a function $f\in L^2(\mathbb{R})$, its Fourier transform is defined as the unique continuous mapping $g:L^2(\mathbb{R})\rightarrow L^2(\mathbb{R})$ that extends the mapping $h:S\rightarrow L^2(\mathbb{R})$, where $S$ is the Schwartz class, and the Fourier transform of a function in the Schwartz class is defined as in the first paragraph. (We may assume that this continuous mapping $g$ exists and is unique.)
Suppose $f\in L^2(\mathbb{R})$, and let $c>0$. Show that $$\lim_{c\rightarrow\infty}\int_{-c}^cf(x)e^{-ixy}dx$$ exists in the $L^2$ sense and is equal to $\hat{f}$ defined above.
Define $f_c(x)$ to be $f(x)$ when $|x|\leq c$ and $0$ when $|x|>c$. Then the limit in question is $$\lim_{c\rightarrow\infty}\int_{-\infty}^\infty f_c(x)e^{-ixy}dx$$
The questions are:
1) Why does this limit exist?
2) Why does it equal $\hat{f}$ defined as the unique extension from the Schwartz class?
We know by the dominated convergence theorem that $\|f_c-f\|_2\rightarrow 0$ as $c\rightarrow\infty$. Might that help?