I'm trying to figure out how to take a derivative that looks like $\displaystyle \frac{d}{d(\ln(a))}$, of a function $F(a)$, where $a = a(t)$. In the paper I'm reading (where this appears), they give the following result in the case that $F(a) = \frac{\dot{a}}{a}$ (where the "dot" is a derivative with respect to $t$):
$$\frac{d(1/F^2)}{d\ln(a)} = \frac{-2\dot{F}}{F^4},$$
but I can't see how they're getting this. Any insight would be much appreciated.