I have been reading the following post:
Prove: If a sequence converges, then every subsequence converges to the same limit.
I understand the idea, but I wonder, does this proof imply that such a subsequence actually exists?
That is, suppose a sequence $s_n$ converges. Then every subsequence $s_{n_k}$ of $s_n$ converges to the same limit. But my question is: does there necessarily exist such a subsequence $s_{n_k}$?