Let n-tuples be $(x_1,x_2,x_3,...x_n)$ and $0\le x_i<q$ ($x_i$ is integers) for $i=1,2,3,...,n$.
First part of the question was about the number of n-tuples. I got this part right, (number of n-tuples)$=q^n$
But for the second part, it is asking the number of n-tuples considering the order of the n-tuples does not matter anymore. For example, (0,0,1,5) and (1,0,0,5) are considered as the same thing.
So, I am thinking as picking $n$ numbers in range of $0\le x_i<q$ because the order does not matter. So, the answer that I got is $\frac {q!} {n!(q-n)!}$.
Is this right??