Yes, it fits in the Tate (-Iwasawa) pattern: the net issue is getting the family of normalizations over all primes consistent. The local ring of integers "at infinity", $\mathbb F_q[T^{-1}]$, by itself is indistinguishable from $\mathbb F_q[T]$, but that's potentially misleading (e.g., won't get the numerator as the question notes). The family of Haar measures should give the adeles measure 1, but any flaw there won't give a $q^{-s}$. Normalization/choice of the additive measures won't give that, either, tho' might change the details on what it takes for a local Schwartz function to be mapped to itself under F.T. (for "optimal" choice).
Edit: oop, and the local additive characters, too!
Edit: in response to further comment. There is certainly much opportunity for cognitive dissonance with $\mathbb F_q[T^{-1}]$. Let's see whether this works out straightforward-ly.
A reasonable collection of local characters at finite places corresponding to irreducible monic $P_v$ should be the "residue" of $f$ at $v$. In the function-field case, unlike the number field case, we have canonical representatives for $\mathbb F_q[T]/P_v$, namely, polynomials of lesser degree. Then the "residue" of a Laurent expansion $\sum_{n\ge -N} q_n/P_v^n$ is the coefficient of $T^{\deg P_v - 1}$ in $q_{-1}$. Then take Galois trace to the prime field $\mathbb F_p$, and feed the result into $x\rightarrow e^{2\pi ix/p}$. These characters are trivial on the local integers $o_v$ at all finite places, and non-trivial on $P_v^{-1}o_v$, and match expectations.
(There is a geometric heuristic, too, that the sum of residues of a meromorphic function on projective 1-space is $0$, but this requires suitable interpretation of "residue... Still, in principle, this would explain what the character $\psi_\infty$ should be, too.)
Thus, apart from the degree-equal-characteristic case, $\psi_T(T^{-1})\not=1$. Since $T$ is a local unit at all other finite places, necessarily $\psi_\infty(T^{-1})\not=1$
for $\prod_{v\le\infty}\psi_v(x)=1$ for $x\in\mathbb F_q(T)$. That's pretty decisive.
But/and $\psi_T(T^{-2})=1$, which explains (modulo a small exercise) why $\psi_\infty$ is trivial on $(T^{-1})^2\cdot o_\infty$, with $o_\infty$ the local ring of integers at infinity (= formal power series in $T^{-1}$).
Thus, the FT of the char fcn of $o_\infty$ cannot be itself again (nor a constant multiple).
Hopefully this better indicates the origin of the numerator. The clincher (for me) is that the additive char at infinity cannot be quite what one might have thought. (And, again, I think that the char fcn of $T^{-1}o_\infty$ is, up to a measure constant, its own FT, but not so for the char fcn of $o_\infty$.)
Edit 2: Perhaps it is worth noting that the "residue of differential form" viewpoint does also suggest the correct normalization at $\infty$, namely, the differential form is $f(x)\,dz$, properly. Thus, at $\infty$, the $dz$ must be rewritten in terms of the local coordinate, $1/z$! Thus, $f(1/z)d(1/z)$ near $z=0$ is $f(1/z)\frac{-1}{z^2}dz$, which suggests both the sign flip and the "unexpected" shift in the additive character.