In Aaron's answer here...
"Given a manifold $M$, and a point $p\in M$, we have a vector space $T_pM$ of the tangent vectors to $M$ at $p$. For example, if you take the hollow sphere sitting inside $R^3$, you can look at the plane that sits tangent to a point, and turn it into a vector space. These tangent vectors act on functions by taking the directional derivative of a function at a point."
....this is from Aaron's answer in the link mentioned in the question. Here he says that any vector in the tangent plane to the sphere at a given point belongs to the tangent space at that point. fine.. but again he says that "These tangent vectors act on functions by taking the directional derivative of a function at a point." I do not understand the last statement and I'd appreciate some help. Thank you