This is related to a problem of showing that none of the intervals $(0,1], (0,1), [0,1]$ are homeomorphic to another, since it's in the same problem block. I've tried using $f(x) = 1 - x \ , f(x) = 1/(x-1)$ between varying pairs of those intervals to no avail. Do I need a function as complicated as the topologist's sine to show this?
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2You can embedd each interval in the other one by $f(x)=\frac13+\frac13 x$ – Stefan Hamcke Sep 24 '13 at 23:19
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Ah, that makes sense now. I guess I kept looking for a surjection as well. – Daniel Donnelly Sep 24 '13 at 23:23
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1With your additional condition (that it is also surjection), it seems to be identical to this question – Martin Sleziak Sep 26 '13 at 09:02
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This questin is about the other problem you mentioned: Is there exist a homemoorphism between either pair of $(0,1),(0,1],[0,1]$; http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/240414/is-there-exist-a-homeorphism-between-either-pair-of-0-1-0-1-0-1 – Martin Sleziak Sep 26 '13 at 09:03
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This community wiki solution is intended to clear the question from the unanswered queue.
Define $f : (0, 1) \to [0, 1)$ to be the inclusion. This is an embedding.
Define $g : [0, 1) \to (0, 1)$ by $\displaystyle t \mapsto \frac12t + \frac12$. This embeds into $[1/2, 1) \subseteq (0, 1)$.
But $(0, 1)$ and $[0, 1)$ are not homeomorphic. If you remove any point from $(0, 1)$ you get two disconnected components. However, if you remove $0$ from $[0, 1)$ you still have only one component.

Robert Cardona
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