Do you remember proof of :
If $A$ is a nilpotent matrix the $I+A$ is invertibe...
what we do is somehow see that
$(I+A)(I-A+A^2-A^3\dots )=(I-A+A^2-A^3\dots )(I+A)=I$
and then, we say that : as $A$ is nilpotent, $A^n=0$ for some positive integer $n$
So, we end up with the case that $I-A+A^2-A^3\dots = I-A+A^2-A^3\dots +(-1)^nA^n$
and as $I-A+A^2-A^3\dots +(-1)^nA^n$ is "very well defined" than $I-A+A^2-A^3\dots$ to be a "MATRIX"
we say that $I+A$ is invertible.
I would suggest you to repeat the same process in case of $\mathbb{Q}[\sqrt{2},\sqrt{3}]$
please make sure there are no polynomials in $\mathbb{Q}[\sqrt{2},\sqrt{3}]$ with degree more than $2$ (are you sure why???) as we "kill" coefficients of $x^2$ and above by using a result:
"$\sqrt{2},\sqrt{3}$ are algebraic with polynomials $x^2-2$ and $x^2-3$"
if you can intuitively see that now, then we can go further..
please make your self comfortable with :
given any "polynomial" i have an expression $g(x)$ such that $f(x)g(x)=g(x)f(x)=1$
but then $g(x)=\frac{1}{f(x)}$ need not be a polynomial.
But in our case, "Thanks to algebraic nature of $\sqrt{2},\sqrt{3}$" we end up with "killing" of higher powers.
Thus, any polynomial is "invertible" and thus we are done.