I was asked in class the other day by a professor for whom English is a second language why $\forall$ is sometimes read "for all" while other times read "for every." Is there a rule for this?
I was thinking it might be read "for every" for finite and possibly countably infinite sets, since "every" seems to emphasize the distinctness of unique elements, while "for all" might be used for uncountably infinite sets, but I'm not sure.