I've been preparing for the prelim in August, and was working on a problem involving uniform continuity and restriction of functions. I absentmindedly assumed the above by considering the contrapositive: if $f: A \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ isn't uniformly continuous, that implies $\exists \ \epsilon$ such that no $\delta$ satisfies $d(x,y) < \delta \implies d(f(x),f(y)) < \epsilon, \,\,\ \forall x,y \in A$, and this failure of $\epsilon$'s existence shouldn't change when I "add more points" by considering $f: X \rightarrow \mathbb{R}.$
However, if this is true, we obtained a lot of results I consider to be strangely powerful. For example, if a function is continuous on $\mathbb{R}$, it is uniformly continuous on any bounded interval I, as it's uniformly continuous on $\overline{I}$ which is compact by Heine-Borel. Hence, if $f$ is a real-valued function continuous on a subset $A$ of $R$, it's uniformly continuous on any bounded subset $X$ of $A$.
Conclusions such as this seem too strong! Is there a flaw in my reasoning, and if so, where is it?