How could I introduce a parameter to determine the value of $\int_0^1\frac{\log(1+x)}{1+x^2}dx$?
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Do you mean to use what is commonly referred to as Feynman's trick, otherwise known as Leibniz' rule for integrals? – Arthur Mar 30 '24 at 10:40
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This is the idea. – M.González Mar 30 '24 at 10:45
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What did you try? You are not new here. Please avoid "no clue" questions. – Anne Bauval Mar 30 '24 at 11:02
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This answers your question. (Found using Approach$0$ – Anne Bauval Mar 30 '24 at 11:08
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I tried $F(t)=\int_0^1 (1+x^2)^{-1} log(1+tx)dx$, and tried to calculate $F'(t)$. In order to do that, I need to reduce to simple fractions the integrand $(1+x^2)^{-1}(1+tx)^{-1}x$, but I could not. – M.González Mar 30 '24 at 11:19
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This comment should be an edit of your post, and should be more explicit: What stops you in decomposing $F'(t)=\frac x{(1+x^2)(1+tx)}$ into a sum of simple fractions? Anyway, the link in my previous comment solves all. – Anne Bauval Mar 30 '24 at 11:35
1 Answers
You can write the integral as $$I(\alpha)=\int_0^1 \frac{\log(1+\alpha x)}{1+x^2}\,dx$$
The target integral is the case $\alpha=1$, note that for $\alpha=0$ we find $I(0)=0$ which is going to be useful later. Now we want to differentiate $I(\alpha)$ with respect to $\alpha$, so we write:
$$I'(\alpha)=\frac{\partial}{\partial\alpha}I(\alpha)=\frac{\partial}{\partial\alpha}\int_0^1 \frac{\log(1+\alpha x)}{1+x^2}\,dx=\int_0^1 \frac{\partial}{\partial\alpha}\frac{\log(1+\alpha x)}{1+x^2}\,dx$$
We can bring inside the integral the partial differential because of the theorem of Dominated Convergence.
$$I'(\alpha)=\int_0^1 \frac{x}{(1+x^2)(1+\alpha x)}\,dx=\int_0^1\frac{\alpha+x}{(a+x^2)(a+\alpha x)}-\frac{\alpha}{(\alpha^2+1)(1+(\alpha x))}\,dx$$
Integrating with respect of $x$ we obtain an expression that is in $\alpha$: $$I'(\alpha)=\frac{\pi}{4}\frac{\alpha}{\alpha^2+1}-\frac{\log{2}}{2(\alpha^2+1)}$$
We now recover the original function by integrating this derivative:
$$I(\alpha)=\int \frac{\pi}{4}\frac{\alpha}{\alpha^2+1}-\frac{\log{2}}{2(\alpha^2+1)}\,d\alpha=\frac{\pi}{8}\log{\alpha^2+1}-\frac{\log{2}\arctan(\alpha^2+1)}{2} +C$$
By chosing $\alpha = 0$ we recover that $C=0$ as well.
We end up with:
$$\int_0^1 \frac{\log(1+x)}{1+x^2}\,dx=I(1)=\frac{\pi}{8}\log{2}-\frac{\log{2}\arctan(2)}{2}$$

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