Exercise 2.13 on page 46 reads
(Double Induction) Let $P(x,y)$ be a property. Assume
(**) If $P(k,l)$ holds for all $k,l \in \mathbb{N}$ such that $k < m$ or ($k=m$ and $l<n$), then >$P(m,n)$ holds.
Conclude that $P(m,n)$ holds for all $m,n \in \mathbb{N}$.
Since the authors state on page 44
(The Induction Principle, Second Version) Let $P(x)$ be a property (possibly with parameters). Assume that, for all $n\in\mathbb{N}$,
(*) If $P(k)$ holds for all $k<n$, then $P(n)$ holds.
Then $P(n)$ holds for all $n \in \mathbb{N}$.
I was trying to solve the exercise applying the second version of induction (answers here use a double application of regular induction, which is stated on page 42 of the book)
My argument is as follows: Assume (**) is true. Let $n=n_{0}$ be fixed and consider the property $Q(m):P(m,n_{0})$. Then (**) implies the condition (*) for $Q$ and by the second version of induction we have $\forall m\, P(m,n_{0})$.
Question: Since $n_{0}$ was arbitrary, can I conclude that $P(m,n)$ holds for all $m,n\in\mathbb{N}$?
If not, I guess I can perform an additional symmetric application of the second version of induction. This time fixing $m=m_{0}$ in order to conclude $\forall n\, P(m_{0},n)$.
Hence, do I need to apply the second version of induction above once or twice?