What I want to know is how do you prove the fundamental lemma of the calculus of variations without knowing what a ball is. I saw a proof but you needed to know that you could substitute "characteristics of balls" for "smooth compactly supported functions", and I didn't understand why you could exchange phrases. I think I know how to prove this, but I'm not sure. Here's the lemma:
If $f(x)$ is continuous on the open interval $(a, b)$ and for all compactly supported smooth functions $h(x)$ on $(a,b)$,
$$\int_a^b f(x)h(x) =0$$
then $f(x)$ is identically zero.
If the hypothesis entails the assumption that $h(x)$ is integrable, then I can prove it myself, but I don't know if infinitely differentiable implies integrable. I understand that differentiability implies continuity, and I think if a function is continuous on $[a,b]$ then it's integrable on the $closed$ interval $[a,b]$, but if the interval is open I'm not so sure. Any help would be greatly appreciated.
Here's my proof. Assume $h(x)$ can be integrated on $(a,b)$, then $h(x)=v'$. So we are interested in $\int_a^b f(x) dv=0$. Using integration by parts we have:
$\int f(x)dv =f(x)v - \int v(x) df=0$
Since h(x) can be any smooth function take $v(x)=x$. Then
$0 =f(x)x - \int x df=f(x)x -f(x)x - \int_a^b f(x)dx$
Which is true only if $f(x)=0.$