I am constructing a bijection from open interval $(0,1)$ to open interval $(a,b)$ for $a,b\in\mathbb{R}$ and $a<b$.
I tested the line through points $(0,1)$ and $(a,b)$, namely $f(x)=1+\frac{b-1}{a-0}(x-0)$.
But say $(a,b)=(3,4)$ giving $f(x)=1+\frac{4-1}{3-0}(x-0)$ or $f(x)=1+x$, then we see that $0<x<1$ gives $1<f(x)<2$ not $3<f(x)<4$.
Instead, this seems to map intervals $(0,3)$ to $(1,4)$ or $(0,a)$ to $(1,b)$.
Why does this line not map interval $(0,1)$ to interval $(a,b)$ ?
In this answer the bijection is $(-1,1)$ to $(a,b)$, and the line through the points suffices: https://math.stackexchange.com/a/2876242/1098426
I am avoiding wordiness, but if you have questions, please let me know.
The problem I am doing regards a continuous function with uncountably many points greater than some value, but that is merely my motive (MSE requires I state this) and is unrelated.