Given an n-digit integer sequence, e.g. $n=5$ [1, 1, 5, 6, 4]
where each digit is independent and uniformly random in the range 1-6, what is the probability of having at least k same digits of a certain value (e.g. 1)?
Specifically I'm interested in $k = n/2$ (rounded up) and n in the range 1 - 40.
So ... f(k, n) = Probability of *at least* k same of a specific digit = ... n ... k ...?
Background:
This is as far as I got with the question of plotting the probability of rolling $n$ dice once and having at least $k$ 1
s in the resulting roll. (e.g. at least half the dice showing 1
.)
Yes, there are $6^n$ combinations to roll $n$ dice. The probability for each die to show or not show a 1
is $1/6$ or $5/6$ respectively.
Yes, the question is the same whether asking if we have at least half 1
s or at least half 4
s ... any single digit, the others are irrelevant. And, yes, it does not matter if I roll $n$ dice once to generate the sequence or one die $n$ times.
That it is $1/6$ for one die is trivial. For two dice I can come up with a calculation, and is still easy to check with a table - $11/36$), but I fail to come up with a calculable general solution for $n >= 3$
Similar to this other question I'm currently looking at the binomial distribution but I'm stuck a bit at the moment.
Side Side Note: The question for increasing n comes from a discussion we had on if, and how much, the probability of rolling more than half 1
s with a hand full of D6 dice increases with the number of dice.