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I have seen a proof that $\phi(n) \geq \sqrt{\frac{n}{2}}$, and I was wondering if equality can happen occasionally.

I used a computer program and I couldn't find any solution up to a million other than $2$.

Do we know anything about this?

Thanks in advance.

Aria
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  • I think we can also deduce strict inequality from the first proof from the following link: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/527946/prove-that-phin-geq-sqrtn-2

    Can anyone help me confirm that?

    – Aria Jan 21 '24 at 17:17
  • If I am not getting wrong, we can achieve the strict equality by observing that if $n : \sqrt{\frac{n}{2}} \in \mathbb{Z}^+$, then $\forall n \quad \exists k \in \mathbb{N}-{0,1} : \phi(n)=k \cdot \frac{n}{2}$. – Marco Ripà Jan 21 '24 at 17:23
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    the question in the header doesn't match the question in the body. I think you mean "$=$" instead of "$≥$". – lulu Jan 21 '24 at 17:23
  • @MarcoRipà, I don't think your argument is accurate since it does not work for n = 50 if I'm not mistaken. – Aria Jan 21 '24 at 17:58
  • @Aria My argument holds also for $n=50$ since $\phi(50)=20=4 \cdot 5$ and we know that $\sqrt{\frac{50}{2}}=\sqrt{25}=5$ so that $k(n : n=50)=4$ is an integer $>1$ as I stated above. – Marco Ripà Jan 21 '24 at 19:10
  • @MarcoRipà, Thank you for your solution! I think you meant that $\phi(n) = k* \sqrt{\frac{n}{2}}$, and it is true indeed as I have written in on paper. – Aria Jan 21 '24 at 19:25
  • Oh, my bad... I've just seen that I missed the "\sqrt" in my first comment. Yes, I meant what you wrote. – Marco Ripà Jan 21 '24 at 23:25

2 Answers2

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If $q$ is a power of the odd prime $p$, you can check explicitly that $\phi(q)=q \cdot \left(1-\frac{1}{p}\right)> \sqrt{q}$.

If $q$ is a power of $2$, then $\varphi(q) = \frac{q}{2} \geq \sqrt{\frac{q}{2}}$ with equality iff $q=2$.

Using the multiplicativity of $\varphi$ (and treating $n=1$ separately), we find that $\phi(n) \geq \sqrt{\frac{n}{2}}$, with equality iff $n=2$.

In fact, we have much better lower bounds on $\varphi$, see the Wikipedia page.

Marco Ripà
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Aphelli
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Assume that $n=\prod_{i=1}^{k}p_i^{a_i}\ge2$ for some distinct primes $p_1,\cdots,p_i$ and some integers $a_1,\cdots,a_i \ge 1$

Let $rad(n)=\prod_{i=1}^{k}p_i$, then we have $\frac{n}{2}=\varphi(n)^2=n^2\frac{\varphi(rad(n))^2}{rad(n)^2}$

Which implies that $rad(n)^2=2n\varphi(rad(n))^2$, that is, $1=2\frac{n}{rad(n)^2}\varphi(rad(n))^2 \ge \frac{2}{rad(n)}\varphi(rad(n))^2 = 2\prod_{i=1}^{k}\frac{(p_i-1)^2}{p_i}$, with the equal sign holds if and only if $n=rad(n)$.

Since $\frac{(p_i-1)^2}{p_i} < 1 \implies p_i^2-3p_i+1 < 0 \implies p_i < \frac{3+\sqrt{5}}{2}\implies p_i=2$, this means if $2\nmid n$ this leads to a contradiction.

If $2\mid n$, and $k\ge2$(i.e. $n$ has at least 2 distinct prime factors). Assume that $p_1=2$, then since $\frac{\varphi(2)^2}{2}=\frac{(2-1)^2}{2}$, this implies that $1\ge\prod_{i=2}^{k}\frac{(p_i-1)^2}{p_i} > 1$, which again is a contradiction.

If $n=2^s$ with $s \ge 2$, then we have $1=2\frac{n}{rad(n)^2}\varphi(rad(n))^2 > \frac{2}{rad(n)}\varphi(rad(n))^2 = 2\times\frac{(2-1)^2}{2}=1$, which again leads to a contradiction.

Therefore, $\varphi(n)=\sqrt{\frac{n}{2}}$ if and only if $n=2$

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    Thank you for your answer! As for the case $n=2^s$, since $n > rad(n)$ equality can never happen unless $s=1$. – Aria Jan 26 '24 at 13:46