Background:
Theorem 6.6 Let $I$ be an ideal in a ring $R$ and let $a,c\in R,$ Then $a\equiv c \pmod I$ if and only if $a+I=c+I.$
Theorem 10.8 Every Euclidean domain is a principal ideal domain.
Exercise 15: Let $I$ be a nonzero ideal ini $\mathbb{Z}[i]$, show that the quotient ring $\mathbb{Z}[i]/I$ is finite.
Proof 1: By Theorem 10.8 $I=(b)$ for some nonzero $b.$ If $a\in \mathbb{Z}[i],$ then $a=bq+r$ with $r=0$ or $\delta(r)<\delta(b),$ and, hence, $a\equiv r \pmod I.$ By Theorem 6.6, the number of distincct cosets of $I$ (congruence classes mod $I$) is at most the number of possible $r$'s under division by $b.$ Show that there are only finitely many possible $r$'s.
Proof 2: Say $I=\langle a+bi \rangle.$ Then $a^2+b^2+I=(a+bi)(a-bi)+I=I$ and therefore $a^2 +b^2\in I.$ For any $c,d\in \mathbb{Z},$ let $c=q_1(a^2+b^2)+r_1$ and $d=q_2(a^2+b^2)+r_2,$ where $0\leq r_1,r_2<a^2+b^2.$ Then $c+di+I=r_1+r_2i+I.$
Questions:
I have a few related questions for the two proofs above to the quoted exercise. In proof 1, I don't understand when it says "the number of distinct cosets of $I$ (congruence classes mod $I$) is at most the number of possible $r$'s under division by $b.$" Is the author saying that I am suppose to count the number of equivalence classes? Because it asks the reader to show that there can only be finitely many $r$s. But in proof 2, I am not sure why it need to use two separate integers $c,d$ with respect to $(a^2+b^2)$ in order to use the division algorith twice to show that there are two remainders $r_1, r_2$ and that they are used to satisfy Theorem 6.6. How is that showing there are only two $r'$s? I mean why only two integers, or does it mean that any more would imply that the extra ones would go into one of the two equivalence classes $[c],[d]$? (here i am using the notation $[c]$ to denote equivalence classes). Also when this question came up in the text, the notion of norm for gaussian integers has not been introduced yet.
Thank you in advance