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This question has been asked in here and a critical part of the answer given is wrong, I believe. Read the rules of MSE and a repetition of this question is not against the policy and the reason for re-asking is that it may take quite a long time to reach 50 points to make a comment over there, so please do not close/delete this post...

My question: In the answer linked, $$\left((m+1)^s-m^s \right)=\frac s{m^{1-s}} +O\left(\frac1{m^{2-s}}\right)$$ is correct and the right hand side of $$f(s)=\sum_{m=1}^\infty (-1)^{m}\left((m+1)^s-m^s \right)$$ converges for $0<\text{Re}(s)<1$. However, the rearrangement of the series to the form of $$f(s)=\sum_{m=1}^\infty \left((2m+1)^s-2(2m)^s+(2m-1)^s\right)$$ is not correct since the alternative series convergences for $0<\text{Re}(s)<1$ and according to Rudin's book rearrangement is possible when absolute convergence holds and for $f(s)$ absolute convergence does not hold for $0<\text{Re}(s)<1$. So how $\sum_{m=1}^{\infty} (-1)^m \{{(m+1)^s - m^s} \}$ convergences uniformly for $0 < \text{Re}(s) < 1$?

Ali
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  • As long as $a_n \to 0$ the series $\sum a_n$ converges if and only if $\sum b_n$ does, where $b_n=a_{2n-1}+a_{2n}$. This does not require any theorem about re-arrangements. It follows from definition of convergence. Sorry, if I did not understand your question correctly. – geetha290krm Jan 06 '24 at 07:45
  • @geetha290krm, yes you are right. Thanks! – Ali Jan 06 '24 at 08:03

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Nice question, there are 2 important misunderstandings to point out:

  1. This is not a rearrangement. Given a series $$\sum_{n\in\mathbb{N}}a_n$$ A rearrangement of it, is another series $$\sum_{n\in\mathbb{N}}a_{\phi(n)}$$ Where $\phi:\mathbb{N}\to\mathbb{N}$ is some permutation of the natural numbers, this does not have this form, rather it is a telescoping, i.e. we took the series $$\sum_{n\in\mathbb{N}}a_n$$ and rewrote it as $$\sum_{n\in\mathbb{N}}(a_{2n}+a_{2n-1})$$ You can check that this preserves limits and the convergence status of an arbitrary series.

  2. Secondly, you ask, under the incorrect assumption that this is a rearrangement, the question:

So how does $\sum_{m=1}^{\infty} (-1)^m \{{(m+1)^s - m^s} \}$ converge uniformly for $0<\text{Re}(s)<1$ ?

This implies that you have misunderstood the theorem in Rudin, it does not state that a rearrangement preserves the limit of a series if and only if the series is absolutely convergent. In fact, given any convergent series, absolutely convergent or not, there will be a (non-trivial) rearrangement which does preserve the limit.

Carlyle
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