This is question 2 from here:
Let $f_n \in L_1$ for all $n \in \mathbb{N}$. Which is larger, $$\left(\sum_{n=1}^\infty \left|\int f_n d\mu\right|^2\right)^{1/2}\label{1}$$ or $$\int \left(\sum_{n=1}^\infty |f_n|^2\right)^{1/2} d\mu$$
I’ve not made much progress on this question, and I’d like to ask for some help.
Taking the first expression, we have \begin{align} \left(\sum_{n=1}^\infty \left|\int f_n d\mu\right|^2\right)^{1/2} & \leq \left(\sum_{n=1}^\infty\left(\int |f_n| d\mu\right)^2\right)^{1/2}\\ & \stackrel{\text{Holder}}{\leq}\left(\sum_{n=1}^\infty\left(\int 1 d\mu\right)\left(\int |f_n|^2 d\mu\right)\right)^{1/2}\\ & = \left(\left(\int 1 d\mu\right) \left(\sum_{n=1}^\infty\int |f_n|^2 d\mu\right)\right)^{1/2}\\ & \stackrel{\text{LMCT}}{=} \left(\left(\int 1 d\mu\right) \left(\int \sum_{n=1}^\infty |f_n|^2 d\mu\right)\right)^{1/2}\\ & = \left(\int 1 d\mu\right)^{1/2} \left(\int \sum_{n=1}^\infty |f_n|^2 d\mu\right)^{1/2} \end{align} I don’t think what I have is correct. Since there is now an extra $\int 1$ term, and I have no good way of bringing the $\frac{1}{2}$ into the integral. I think at some point I need to make use of the Minkowski inequality.
There is a proof here making use of the $\ell_p$ spaces, is there any way to avoid it and show this inequality within the $L_p$ spaces?