I was trying to evaluate an expression for the family of integrals
$$ I(a,n) = \int_0^{\infty} \frac{\sin^n(ax)}{x^n(x^2+1)} dx$$
For positive $a$ and $n$
The expression for the first few $n$ can be computed by hand. For example, for the case when $n=1$ we have:
$$ I(a,1) = \int_0^{\infty} \frac{\sin(ax)}{x(x^2+1)} dx$$
Differentiating, we get:
$$ I'(a,1) = \int_0^{\infty} \frac{\cos(ax)}{x^2+1} dx = \frac{\pi}{2}\cdot e^{-a}$$
Since $I(0,1) = 0$, we can write $I(a,1)$ as:
$$ I(a,1) = \frac{\pi}{2} \cdot (1-e^{-a})$$
For $n=2$, we again differentiate with respect to $a$. We get:
$$I'(a,2) = \int_0^{\infty} \frac{\sin(2ax)}{x(x^2+1)} dx = I(2a,1) = \frac{\pi}{2} \cdot (1-e^{-2a})$$
Again observing that $I(0,2) = 0$, we can write $I(a,2)$ as:
$$I(a,2) = \frac{\pi}{2} \cdot (a + \frac{1}{2}\cdot e^{-2a} - \frac{1}{2})$$
With some rather tedious effort in computing the third derivative, we can use the same strategy to evaluate $I(a,3)$. I obtained:
$$I(a,3) = \frac{\pi}{8} \cdot (3a^2+ 3e^{-a} -e^{-3a}-2)$$
I hypothesize after looking at the pattern that the expression for $I(a,n)$ must be some fraction of $\pi$, multiplied by the sum of a polynomial of degree $n-1$ added to some exponentials of the form $e^{-ka}$ where $k$ ranges from $1$ to $n$.
But I was wondering if we can afford to keep doing this for higher and higher values of $n$. I don't have a surefire way of obtaining an expression for general $n$, except for repeated differentiation, simplification and reverse integration.
Can anyone help me in evaluating an expression that holds for all natural $n$?
Any help is appreciated. Thank you for reading!