I am going to tackle this by breaking the expression down into parts and simplifying the parts one by one before putting it back together.
Section 1: $\frac{v^2\sin(2\theta)\sin\theta\sqrt{\cos(2\theta)+1}}{g\cos^3(\theta)\sqrt{2}}+\frac{v^2\cos(2\theta)\sqrt{\cos(2\theta)+1}}{g\cos^2(\theta)\sqrt{2}}$
Now, multiplying the second fraction by $\cos\theta$ and adding the numerators, we get:
$\frac{(v^2\sqrt{\cos(2\theta)+1})(\sin2\theta\sin\theta+\cos2\theta\cos\theta)}{g\cos^3(\theta)\sqrt{2}}$
Looking at $\sin2\theta\sin\theta+\cos2\theta\cos\theta$, we can expand $\sin2\theta$ and $\cos2\theta$ before simplifying it.
Doing so, we get $\cos\theta$. Plugging it back into our simplified Section $1$ expression and simplifying further, we get:
$\frac{v^2\sqrt{\cos(2\theta)+1}}{g\cos^2(\theta)\sqrt{2}}$
Now, looking at $\sqrt{\cos2\theta + 1}$, using the $\cos2\theta$ identity for $\cos\theta$, we get: $\cos\theta\sqrt{2}$.
Plugging it into the expression we got above, we get:
$\frac{v^2}{g\cos\theta}$
Therefore, our final expression for Section 1 is $\fbox{$\frac{v^2}{g\cos\theta}$}$.
Section 2: $\frac{v^2\cos^2(\theta)(\sec^2(\theta)\tan\theta\sin2\theta + \sec^2(\theta)\cos2\theta)}{g\sqrt{\frac{\sec^4(\theta)\sin^2(2\theta)}{4}+1}}$
Looking at $\sec^4(\theta)\sin^2(2\theta)$, we know that $\sec\theta = \frac{1}{\cos\theta}$ and that $\sin2\theta = 2\sin\theta\cos\theta$.
Using these facts, $\sec^4(\theta)\sin^2(2\theta) = 4\tan^2(\theta)$
Plugging it back into the denominator of Section 2's expression, we get:
$\frac{v^2\cos^2(\theta)(\sec^2(\theta)\tan\theta\sin2\theta + \sec^2(\theta)\cos2\theta)}{g\sqrt{\frac{4\tan^2(\theta)}{4}+1}}$
Looking at the denominator of the above expression, this can be simplified into $g\sec\theta$.
Plugging this back into the above expression and rearranging, we get:
$\frac{v^2\cos^3(\theta)(\sec^2(\theta)\tan\theta\sin2\theta + \sec^2(\theta)\cos2\theta)}{g}$
Looking at $\sec^2(\theta)\tan\theta\sin2\theta + \sec^2(\theta)\cos2\theta$, we can use the fact that $\sec^2(\theta)=\frac{1}{\cos^2(\theta)}$ and utilise the double angle formulae for $\sin2\theta$ and $\cos2\theta$.
Doing so, we get $\sec^2(\theta)$.
Plugging it back into the Section 2 expression above and simplifying, we get:
$\frac{v^2\cos(\theta)}{g}$.
Therefore, our final expression for Section 2 is $\fbox{$\frac{v^2\cos(\theta)}{g}$}$.
Looking at both expressions from Sections 1 and 2, we can add them together.
Doing so, we get:
$\frac{v^2}{g}(\cos\theta + \sec\theta)$
Since $\cos\theta + \sec\theta$ cannot be simplified further, $\fbox{$\frac{v^2}{g}(\cos\theta + \sec\theta)$}$ is our final combined expression from Sections 1 and 2.
Section 3: $-\frac{v^2\sin^2(2\theta)}{2^{\frac{3}{2}}g\cos^2(\theta)\sqrt{\cos2\theta+1}}$
Remembering that $\sqrt{\cos2\theta+1} = \cos\theta\sqrt{2}$, the expression for section 3 can be reduced to the following:
$-\frac{v^2\sin^2(2\theta)}{4g\cos^3(\theta)}$
Remembering that $\sin2\theta=2\sin\theta\cos\theta$, we can simplify the above expression even further to
$\fbox{$-\frac{v^2\tan\theta\sin\theta}{g}$}$
Putting this into our combined Sections 1 and 2 expression, we get:
$\frac{v^2}{g}(\cos\theta + \sec\theta - \tan\theta\sin\theta)$
Section 4: $-\frac{2v^2\sin\theta\cos\theta\operatorname{arsinh}\left(\frac{\sec^2\left({\theta}\right)\sin\left(2{\theta}\right)}{2}\right)}{g}$
Remembering that $2\sin\theta\cos\theta = \sin2\theta$ and that $\sec^2(\theta)=\frac{1}{\cos^2(\theta)}$, we can simplify the Section 4 expression into the following:
$\fbox{$-\frac{v^2\sin2\theta\operatorname{arsinh}\left(\tan\left({\theta}\right)\right)}{g}$}$
Now, combining our Sections 1, 2 and 3 expression and our simplified Section 4 expression, we get:
$\frac{v^2}{g}(\cos\theta+\sec\theta-\tan\theta\sin\theta-\sin2\theta\operatorname{arsinh}\left(\tan\left({\theta}\right)\right))$
Let's call the above the final expression (basically the original expression but simplified).
Final Expression:$\frac{v^2}{g}(\cos\theta+\sec\theta-\tan\theta\sin\theta-\sin2\theta\operatorname{arsinh}\left(\tan\left({\theta}\right)\right))$
Looking at $\cos\theta+\sec\theta-\tan\theta\sin\theta-\sin2\theta\operatorname{arsinh}\left(\tan\left({\theta}\right)\right)$, we should expand everything before re-examining the expression.
Doing so gives us: $\cos\theta+\sec\theta-\sin^2(\theta)\sec\theta-2\sin\theta\cos\theta\operatorname{arsinh}\left(\tan\left({\theta}\right)\right)$
Looking at $\sec\theta -\sin^2(\theta)\sec\theta$, we can factor out $\sec\theta$ and simplify. Doing so gives us $\cos\theta$.
Plugging this back into our expression gives us:
$2\cos\theta-2\sin\theta\cos\theta\operatorname{arsinh}\left(\tan\left({\theta}\right)\right)$
Taking out $2\cos\theta$, we get $2\cos\theta(1-\sin\theta\operatorname{arsinh}\left(\tan\left({\theta}\right)\right))$
Plugging this back into our final expression, we get:
$\frac{v^2}{g}(2\cos\theta)(1-\sin\theta\operatorname{arsinh}\left(\tan\left({\theta}\right)\right))$
Therefore, our final form for the final expression is
$\fbox{$\frac{2v^2}{g}\cos\theta(1-\sin\theta\operatorname{arsinh}\left(\tan\left({\theta}\right)\right))$}$
Numerical Answer to Problem
Now that we have turned the original expression into the final expression, our last step is to equate the final expression to $0$ and see which $\theta$ satisfies the final expression (remembering that $0 \leq \theta \leq \frac{\pi}{2}$ and that $v,g \geq 0$).
Doing so, we get:
$\frac{2v^2}{g}\cos\theta(1-\sin\theta\operatorname{arsinh}\left(\tan\left({\theta}\right)\right))=0$
Multiplying both sides by $\frac{g}{2v^2}$ before manipulating the expression on the LHS gives us:
$1=\sin\theta\operatorname{arsinh}\left(\tan\left({\theta}\right)\right))$
Now the best way to solve this equation is to look at the graph of $\sin\theta\operatorname{arsinh}\left(\tan\left({\theta}\right)\right))$, which is pictured below:

If we then drew the line $y=1$ across this graph, we would get the following:

Now, since $0 \leq \theta \leq \frac{\pi}{2}$, we will only be looking at the positive solution.
The positive solution is $\theta \approx 0.985515$ radians (to $6$ d.p.)
Multiplying this by $\frac{180}{\pi}$, the answer to this problem (in degrees) is approximately $\fbox{$56.46^{\circ}$}$ (to $2$ d.p.)
Note 1: For anybody wondering how did I get certain results in this solution, I had pen and paper by my side and worked it out first before showing whatever I deemed was neccessary.