Wedderburn theorem: Every finite division ring is a field.
The following proof seem easier than other which I manage to understand the theorem. Although some logic(highlighted ones) still seems unclear to me.
proof: Let $D$ be a finite division ring with center $Z$. Suppose $Z$ has $q$ element and $D$ has $q^n$ elements. We claim that $D=Z$ and $n=1$. Since, $D^{\times}=D-\{0\}$ is multiplicative group. we split up the multiplicative group $D^{\times}$ into its conjugate classes. Each element of $Z$ forms a conjugate class by itself. Suppose, there are classes $C_1,\cdots,C_k$ in addition each containing more than one element. We know that conjugate class $C$ consists of $\frac{q^n-1}{q^r-1}$ elements where $r|n$.
"conjugate class $C$ consists of $\frac{q^n-1}{q^r-1}$ elements where $r|n$", I didn't recognize or manage this result.
So corresponding to each class $C_i$ there is a factor $r_i$ of $n$ such that $C_i$ consists of $\frac{q^n-1}{q^{r_i}-1}$ elements and $r_i<n$. Hence, $$D^{\times}=\cup_{x\in Z^{\times}}[x]\bigcup \cup_{x\notin Z^{\times}}[x]\implies O(D^{\times})=O(Z^{\times})+\sum_{x\notin Z^{\times}}|C_i|\implies q^n-1=q-1+\sum_{i=1}^k \frac{q^n-1}{q^{r_i}-1}$$ Now, the nth cyclotomic polynomial $\Phi_n$ is a factor of both the polynomial $X^n-1$ and $\frac{X^n-1}{X^{r_i}-1}$.
The nth cyclotomic polynomial, for any positive integer $n$, is the unique irreducible polynomial with integer coefficients that is a divisor of $x^{n}-1$ and is not a divisor of $x^{k}-1$ for any $k < n$. but here it say also for $\frac{X^n-1}{X^{r_i}-1}$, which I couldn't understand.
Let $a=\Phi_n(q)$ then $a$ divides $q^n-1$ and $\frac{q^n-1}{q^{r_i}-1}$. Hence, $a|q-1$. If $n>1$ then for every primitive nth root of unity $\xi$ in the field of complex numbers $\mathbb C$. we have $|q-\xi|>|q-1|$ hence $|a|=\prod |q-\xi|>q-1$.
I couldn't manage to understand $|a|=\prod |q-\xi|>q-1$. Why the product come in?
And hence $a$ can't be a factor of $q-1$. It follows that there are no classes $C_i$ containing more than one element. Hence, $n=1$ and $D=Z$.
I couldn't manage to understand the in-between logic I highlight above.
To be honest I couldn't manage to understand this theorem intuitively, like a connected logics to write the proof by own (after understanding once). It will be great help if anyone enlighten me the intuition.