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If $G$ is a group of order $p^k$, with $p$ prime, then a subgroup $H$ of order $p^{k-1}$ is normal.

I'm trying to prove the existence of only one subgroup of order $p^{k-1}$.

Let $n_p$ be the number of $p$-Sylow subgroups. We know that $n_p = 1 + pq$ and $1 + pq$ divides $p^k$. So, $n_p = 1$, which implies that we have only one $p$-Sylow subgroup.

My doubt is: did I misunderstand what $n_p$ is? Because the Sylow Theorem states that $G$ has a subgroup of order $p^a$ if $p^a$ divides $|G|$, so there are subgroups of order $p^a$ with $a < k$, and this would already imply that $n_p > 1$.

I'm really confused about this $n_p$.

I know it's a very basic doubt; I'm just starting to study Sylow's theorems now. In all the books I've read, I understand the examples but when it comes to this case, these things seem to contradict the theorem.

Thanks.

Shaun
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2 Answers2

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It is false. Consider $G=C_2\times C_2$, where $C_2$ denotes the cyclic group of order $2$. Then $|G|=2^2$ but $C_2\times\{1\}$ and $\{1\}\times C_2$ are distinct subgroups of $G$ of order $2$.

Deif
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The only groups of order $p^n$ that have a unique subgroup of order $p^{n-1}$ are the cyclic groups of order $p^n$.

This follows because:

Proposition. A group is a union of proper subgroups if and only if it is not cyclic. In particular, a group with a unique maximum proper subgroup is cyclic.

Proof. If $G$ is not cyclic, then for all $x\in G$ we have that $\langle x\rangle$ is a proper subgroup of $G$. Since $$G=\cup_{x\in G}\{x\}\subseteq \cup_{x\in G}\langle x\rangle \subseteq G$$ it follows that $G$ is the union of the proper subgroups $\{\langle x\rangle\mid x\in G\}$.

Conversely, if $G$ is cyclic, $G=\langle x\rangle$, and $G$ is a union of subgroups $G=\cup_{i\in I}H_i$, then $x\in H_i$ for some $i\in I$, and therefore, $G=\langle x\rangle\subseteq H_i\subseteq G$, hence $H_i=G$. So if $G$ is a union of subgroups, at least one of them is not a proper subgroup. $\Box$

So now suppose $G$ has order $p^n$. Subgroups of order $p^{n-1}$ are maximal, and every proper subgroup is contained in a subgroup of order $p^{n-1}$ (this is often proven as a consequence or part of Sylow's First Theorem). So if $G$ has a unique subgroup of order $p^{n-1}$, then the union of all its proper subgroups is the subgroup of order $p^{n-1}$, so $G$ is cyclic. Conversely, if $G$ is cyclic then it has a unique subgroup of any given order, in particular of order $p^{n-1}$.

Now, it is true that if $p^k$ divides the order of $G$, then the number of subgroups of order $p^k$ is congruent to $1$ modulo $p$: this was proven by Frobenius as a generalization of Sylow's Third Theorem, and you can find a proof here. However, in general you do not know that it divides the order $G$ unless $p^k$ is the largest power of $p$ that divides the order of $G$ (in which case, it is part of Sylow's Third Theorem). In fact, it need not divide the order, as the Klein $4$-group (or any group of the form $C_p\times C_p$) shows: the Klein $4$-group has $3$ subgroups of order $2$, and while $3\equiv 1\pmod{2}$, $3$ does not divide $4$. Likewise, the group $C_p\times C_p$ has $p+1$ subgroups of order $p$, which does not divide $p^2$.

The fact that the subgroups of index $p$ are normal follows in any number of ways: it is well known that the normalizer of a proper subgroup of a $p$-group always properly contains the subgroup. Or you can use the also very well known group theory result that if the index of $H$ is the smallest prime that divides the order of $G$, then $H$ is normal.

Arturo Magidin
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