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Is it possible to rank the common topological invariants (homology, cohomology, homotopy) according to their "strength?" By this I mean, can spaces have different homotopy groups yet the same homology and cohomology groups? Similarly, can spaces have different homology groups, yet the same homotopy and cohomology groups? And so on. I think the answer is that homology and cohomology groups determine each other, while homotopy groups can differ (making this a more fine/strong topological invariant). But I'm no expert by any means, so I'd really like to confirm this or be given a direction to further explore this. Thanks in advance.

raynea
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  • Homology and cohomology are related by the universal coefficients theorem – groupoid Dec 16 '23 at 22:47
  • When you say "strength", what's your objective? Although the homology $H_1$ contains less information than $\pi_1$, it is by far easier to compute both in theory and in practice and can be used to a greater effect in proofs, so sometimes $H_1$ is "stronger". But for actually classifying spaces and recording information about them, $\pi_1$ is "stronger". Similarly cohomology often contains "less" information (since, if you're lucky, the universal coefficient theorem makes the computation of $H^\bullet$ trivial) so it is "weaker" but it is also "stronger" because of the algebra structure! – FShrike Dec 16 '23 at 22:56
  • Without clarifying the objective (deducing practical things about a space or about a map between spaces versus classifying homotopy types versus [some other use case]) I don't think your question can really have an answer – FShrike Dec 16 '23 at 22:58
  • @FShrike By strength, I mean which groups are a finer topological invariant, only considering the group structure. For example, if two spaces have the same homotopy groups must they have the same homology groups, cohomology groups? If two spaces have the same homology groups, must they have the same cohomology groups, homotopy groups? And so on. (I'm ignoring richer algebraic structure, and only considering the group structure.) – raynea Dec 16 '23 at 23:10
  • @groupoid I think this answers the question in the affirmative that if two spaces have the same homology groups then they must have the same cohomology groups - correct? – raynea Dec 16 '23 at 23:12
  • @FShrike: what extension? The short exact sequence splits, so if you know homology with integer coefficients, you can determine cohomology (as a graded group) with any coefficients. Similarly, if you know homology with integer coefficients, you can compute homology with any coefficients. – John Palmieri Dec 16 '23 at 23:57
  • @JohnPalmieri jeez, i've spent so much time thinking about when the UCT generally might not split that I've forgotten the case of singular complexes is always nice and always splits, idiotic. Thanks, comment removed – FShrike Dec 17 '23 at 00:05
  • @raynea please ignore my previous gaff. Homology with integer coefficients indeed deteremins cohomology, with all coefficients. – FShrike Dec 17 '23 at 00:07

2 Answers2

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To a connected topological space $X$, we can associate a) its sequence of homology groups $H_n(X;\mathbb{Z}),\,n\ge0$, b) its sequence of cohomology groups $H^n(X;\mathbb{Z}),\,n\ge0$ and c) its sequence of homotopy groups $\pi_n(X),\,n\ge0$. These are considered up to isomorphism.

The universal coefficient theorem tells us that a) determines b). This is the only relation between these invariants. Indeed, to see that b) does not determine a), we can take the Moore spaces $X=M(\mathbb{Q},1)$ and $Y=M(\mathbb{Q}^2,1)$ (see here). To see that c) does not determine b) (and hence c) does not determine a)), we can take $X=S^2\times\mathbb{RP}^3$ and $Y=S^3\times\mathbb{RP}^2$ (see here). To see that a) does not determine c) (and hence that b) does not determine c)), we can take $X=S^3$ and $Y$ the Poincaré homology sphere.

Thorgott
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  • Does this mean that you can have two spaces X and Y whose homotopy groups agree to all order, yet they have different homology (and/or cohomology) groups at some order? That is, can you use homology (or cohomology) groups (forgetting any additional algebraic structure) in certain examples to show two spaces are topologically distinct, even when their homotopy groups all coincide? – raynea Dec 17 '23 at 18:25
  • @raynea Yes, the second example in my answer as exactly that. – Thorgott Dec 17 '23 at 21:47
  • Thank you for the examples and the links! – raynea Dec 18 '23 at 04:29
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You might be interested in the category theoretic concept of a natural transformation.

Suppose you have two functors with the same domain category. I'm going to stick with a very basic example where the domain category is path connected topological spaces with a base point, and the two functors are the fundamental group $\pi_1$ and the first homology group $H_1$ (I'm not mentioning the morphisms, which you can surely guess).

We know that $\pi_1$ is "stronger" than $H_1$ in the sense that you ask, because isomorphic $\pi_1$ implies isomorphic $H_1$; this follows from the first Hurewicz theorem which says that $H_1(X)$ is the abelianization of $\pi_1(X,p)$.

But the first Hurewicz theorem actually says a little bit more: it says that abelianization is a natural transformation from the the functor $\pi_1$ to the functor $H_1(X)$. It not only converts the fundamental group into the first homology group, but if you are given a domain morphism, e.g. a continuous function $f : (X,p) \to (Y,q)$, then abelianization converts the $\pi_1$ homomorphism induced by $f$ into the $H_1$ homomorphism induced by $f$, and it does this in a fashion that respects the "category theoretic" structures, i.e. the compositions and the identities.

This concept of natural transformation is extremely useful, and among other things it fits right in with your concept of ranking invariants by strength: if there is a natural transformation from functor #1 to functor #2 then one can certainly say that #1 is stronger than #2.

And, by the way, $\pi_1$ is strictly stronger than $H_1$, because spaces can have isomorphic $H_1$'s but non-isomorphic $\pi_1$'s. Long before category theory Poincaré discovered a closed 3-manifold with trivial $H_1$ but nontrivial $\pi_1$, and this led him to fix his wrong conjecture and formulate his right conjecture.

Lee Mosher
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