The Marcinkiewicz Interpolation Theorem states as following:
Let $T$ be a linear operator of weak type $(p_0,q_0)$ with constant $C_0$ and of weak type $(p_1,q_1)$ with constant $C_1$ where $q_0\neq q_1$. Now for any $t\in (0,1)$, define $p_t,q_t$ by $$ \frac{1}{p_t} = \frac{1-t}{p_0}+\frac{t}{p_1},\quad \frac{1}{q_t} = \frac{1-t}{q_0} + \frac{t}{q_1}. $$ Then $T$ is strong type $(p_t,q_t)$ with constant $C_t$. Moreover, this constant $C_t$ satisfies $$ C_t\leq C C_0^{1-t} C_1^t, $$ where $C=C(p_0, p_1, q_0, q_1, t)$ is bounded for $0<\epsilon \leq t\leq 1-\epsilon<1$ but tends to infinity as $t\to 0$ or $t\to 1$.
When we say an operator $T$ is of strong type $(p,q)$ with constant $C$, it means $|| Tf||_q \leq C||f||_p$.
When we say an operator $T$ is of weak type $(p,q)$ with constant $C$, it means $|| T f ||_{q,w}\leq C||f||_p $.
Every proof of this Theorem (for instance in Folland's "Real Analysis" or more accessibly in this writeup) that I have found has worked by obtaining an inequality involving the distribution function of $Tf$ of the form $$ \lambda_{Tf}(2\alpha)\leq \lambda_{Tg_A}(\alpha)+\lambda_{Th_A}(\alpha). $$ Then by applying the weak type estimates of $T$ and some clever integral manipulation, one obtains a final inequality like: $$ ||Tf||_{q_t}\leq 2 q_t^{\frac{1}{q_t}}\left[C_0^{q_0}(p_0/p_t)^{\frac{q_0}{p_0}}|q_t-q_0|^{-1}+C_1^{q_1}(p_1/p_t)^{\frac{q_1}{p_1}}|q_t-q_1|^{-1}\right]^{\frac{1}{q_t}}=:C_t, $$
for all $f$ with $||f||_p=1$. Then the general inequality follows from the linearity of $T$ because $|T(cf)|=c|T(f)|$ for $c>0$.
My question is as follows: I don't see how we can obtain from this that $C_t\leq C C_0^{1-t} C_1^t$. For example, if we take $q_0=3$, $q_1=6$, $t=\frac{1}{2}$, and $q_t=4$ which satisfies the hypothesis $$ \frac{1}{q_t} = \frac{1-t}{q_0} + \frac{t}{q_1}, $$ then (for some given choice of $p_0, p_1, p_t$) the quantity $$ \frac{\left[C_0^3 +C_1^6 \right]^{\frac{1}{4}}}{C_0^\frac{1}{2}C_1^\frac{1}{2}} $$ should remain bounded with respect to $C_0,C_1$. But it clearly doesn't (Just take $C_0=1$ or something and ramp $C_1\to \infty$).
So how do we obtain the inequality $C_t\leq C C_0^{1-t} C_1^t$? Is there an alternative proof of this?