In differential calculus for beginners, Joseph Edwards alerts the reader against the fallacious notion of $\frac{dy}{dx}$ being a ratio.
But then in Integral calculus they play around with $\ dy$ and $\ dx$ as if $\frac{dy}{dx}$ was a ratio. They do all kinds of crazy stuff like writing $\ dy$ as a function of $\ dx$. Furthermore, in "Calculus made Easy" by Silvanus Thompsun, he completely uses it as a ratio. In fact, he proves chain rule and other theorems in Calculus by treating $\frac{dy}{dx}$ just like the ratio of two real numbers and he gets away with it without any problems.
For example, he proves the chain rule somewhat like this:
Let $\ y = f(g(x))$. Then let $\ g(x) = u$. Therefore $\ y = f(u)$, so $\frac{dy}{du} = f'(u)$. And $\frac{du}{dx} = g'(x)$, since $\frac{dy}{du} • \frac{du}{dx}= \frac{dy}{dx}, \frac{dy}{dx} = f'(u) • g'(x) = f'(g(x)•g'(x)$.
Isn't that a fallacious way? But if it is, why does it work out perfectly? Some readers have referred to a previous question, but it doesn't solve my problem because what i specifically want to know is why when the derivative is not exactly a ratio, treating it like one doesnt lead to contradictions? How can you get the same chain rule proved with formal, logical, airtight proofs by playing with the derivative like a drunkard?