This maybe a silly question, but I was thinking about it.
First we have the set $\mathbb{N}=\{0,1,2,3,...\}$ of natural numbers, then to create $\mathbb{Z}$ we do the following: For each natural number $n \in \mathbb{N}, n \geq 1$ we adjoin the number $−n$ to $\mathbb{N}$, so we have $\mathbb{Z} = \{...,-3,-2,-1,0,1,2,3,...\}$, and we add the property that $ n + -n= 0$ so each of $n$ and $-n$ is the additive inverse of the other.
Note that till now we have defined $-n$ only when $n$ is positive.
Now we want to prove that $-(-n) = n$, which then allows us to write $-n$ where $n$ is any integer, positive or negative.
In what follows : $a,b \geq 1$(since $-n$ is not defined yet when $n$ is negative):
First: $-a.b + a.b = (-a + a) .b = 0.b =0 $, it then follows that by adding $-(a.b)$ to both sides that $-a.b = -(a.b)$
Now: $-a.-b + -(a.b) = -a.-b + -a.b = -a(-b+b) = -a.0 = 0$, it follows that by adding $a.b$ to both sides that $-a.-b=a.b$
I thought we can prove that $-(-n) = n$ by using the above statements to have:
$-1.n=-n$
$-1.-n = -(1.-n) = -(-n)$
$-1.-n = 1.n = n$
and since the last two statement are equal, then we have $-(-n) = n$
So $-n$ is the additive inverse of $n$ regardless whether n is positive or negative.
My question: Am I over complicating things? Is there a better proof of this statement?