Based on this question:$UV$ is invertible if and only if $U$ and $V$ are both invertible
How to modify this wrong statement? Actually, I want to apply that statement to prove the following question:
If $\lambda$ is in spectrum of $A$ then for all $n \in N$, $\lambda^n$ is in spectrum of $A^n$.
Here we need to factor it: $\lambda^n I - A^n = (\lambda I - A)(\lambda^{n-1}I + \lambda^{n-2}A + \dots + \lambda A^{n-2} + A^{n-1}),$ which is easy to check just by distributing and cancelling. (Note that $\lambda I$ always commutes with $A$.)
If $\lambda^n I - A^n$ has an inverse, then so does $\lambda I - A$.
Update: our statement: Let $U, V$ be linear operator on normed space $X$. Assume that $UV=VU$. Then $UV$ is invertible if and only if $U$ and $V$ are both invertible.