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It is known that given a positive integer $n$, the number of solutions of the equation $φ(x)=n$ is finite, where $φ$ denotes Euler's Phi function. So, I've made an attempt to prove this fact. Here's my attempt.

PROOF For any positive integer $n$ let $\mathscr L_n$ be the set of all $x \in \mathbb Z^+$such that $φ(x)=n$, and assume by way of contradiction that $\mathscr L_n$ is infinite for some positive integer $n$. Thus, there exists a sequence $(x_k)$ of all elements of $\mathscr L_n$. Now, since $φ(m) \ge \sqrt{\frac{m}{2}}$ for all $m \in \mathbb Z^+$, it is easy to see that $(x_k)$ is bounded from above by $2n^2$. Thus, $\mathscr L_n$ is bounded, a contradiction, because we can't have a subset of the naturals that is infinite and bounded, $ο.ε.δ.$

COMMENTS

  1. I know that there's another post on this here How to prove that this equation has finitely many solutions, but it was not helpful.
  2. It's also non-trivial that $φ(m) \ge \sqrt{\frac{m}{2}}$ for all $m \in \mathbb Z^+$, and there is a nice proof given here Prove that $\phi(n) \geq \sqrt{n}/2$.

EDIT

Due to an excellent observation by @user58697, I completely edited things.

user26857
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    @DietrichBurde I don't know what to tell you, I just needed someone to check my attempt, so I could present it on the upcoming lecture as a solved exercise. Also, if I were to post it there, it would go unnoticed since the first post was like a decade ago. – Vaskara_GRek_O Dec 02 '23 at 17:13
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    I don't see why do you bring in convergence. Once you know that $\mathscr L_n$ is bounded, you immediately know that it is finite. – user58697 Dec 02 '23 at 17:57
  • @user58697 That is an excellent observation, this went right over my head, thank you for that. I think got a bit too comfortable with sequences. I'll edit my post. – Vaskara_GRek_O Dec 02 '23 at 18:17
  • But deciding whether there is a solution seems to be hard: see https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/42913/deciding-whether-a-given-number-is-a-totient-or-nontotient – lhf Dec 02 '23 at 18:46