I tried to solve this modular inverse equation: $11^{-1}$ mod $26$ with Fermat's little theorem: $a^{\phi (m) - 1} * a \equiv 1$ mod $m$ and reached the following solution:
$11^{\phi (26)-1} * 11 \equiv 1$ mod $26$
$\phi (26) = 12$
$11^{11} * 11 \equiv 1$ mod $26$
Resulting in: $11^{12} \equiv 1$ mod $26$ with the modular inverse of $11$ being $11^{11}$.
Now I'm wondering if my calculations are correct or if there is a different approach and if this generally works this way.