The following statement is false, but still, a proof is given. I need to determine the error.
"In any set of $n≥1$ circles in $R^2$, all circles have the same radius".
Base case: If $n=1$, then every circle in the set has the same radius, so the statement holds.
Induction hypothesis: Suppose that the statement is true for $n$, i.e., that any $n$ circles in $R^2$ have the same radius.
Induction step. Let us show that any $n+1$ circles in $R^2$ have the same radius. Let $C_1$, $C_2$, $...$, $C_n$, $C_{n+1}$ be any circles in $R^2$. By the induction hypothesis, we have that $C_1$, $C_2$, $...$, $C_n$ have the same radius. Also by the induction hypothesis, we have that $C_2$, $C_3$, $...$, $C_n$, $C_{n+1}$ have the same radius. Therefore, all circles $C_1$, $C_2$, $...$, $C_n$, $C_{n+1}$ have the same radius. Hence, any $n$ circles in $R^2$ have the same radius.
To get started, I'm not even sure I understand the statement clearly. It says that, in any set of $n≥1$ circles in $R^2$, all of them have the same radius. But the induction hypothesis is claiming that any $n$ circles in $R^2$ have the same radius, which is not the same, because as I understand, the statement is only saying that, if we take an arbitrary set of $n$ circles, then we'll find that all of them have the same radius. If that's so, the error must be in the induction hypothesis, but I'm not sure. Can you please help me?