In class, we are learning to find the surface area using the formula $\iint_D \|r_u \times r_v\|dA$ (where $u$ and $v$ are the variables the parameterization uses). The first question was about a sphere with radius R. Instead of writing the parameterization as
$r(u,v)=\langle R\sin(u)\cos(v), R\sin(u)\sin(v), R\cos(u)\rangle$
I wrote it in spherical coordinates as
$r(\theta, \phi) = \langle R, \theta, \phi\rangle$
After finding that $r_\theta = \langle0,1,0\rangle$ and $r_\phi = \langle0,0,1\rangle$, I found that $r_\theta \times r_\phi = \langle1,0,0\rangle$ and $\|\langle1,0,0\rangle\| = 1$. Integrating that (with the proper Jacobian determinant):
$\int_0^{2\pi} \int_0^\pi (1)R^2\sin(\phi) d\phi d\theta$
$-R^2\int_0^{2\pi}(\cos(\phi) |_0^\pi)d\theta$
$-R^2\int_0^{2\pi}-2d\theta$
$-R^2(-4\pi)$
$4\pi R^2$
This is the correct answer, however, my teacher disagrees that I can use spherical coordinates in a two-dimensional integral. I tend to agree with him, but I'd like to know whether this method will always yield the correct answer or if it only works in the case of a sphere.