$m, n \in \mathbb{Z}$ $m^2 = 2n^2 \implies m = 2k$ for some $k \in \mathbb{Z}$
In other words, the first statement implies $m$ is divisible by 2. Why?
My professor used this without proving it.
My idea is:
$m = 2(\frac{n^2}{m})$, but this is not enlightening, since $\frac{n^2}{m} \in \mathbb{Q}$, and it must be an integer for divisibility.
Another idea is:
Since $\mathbb{Z}$ has closure under multiplication, we can say this implies that $m^2$ is divisible by 2, but again, the same issue arises.