I was trying to prove Kaplansky's theorem on infinitely many left inverses in a ring: Let R be a ring and $r \in R$ an element with two left-inverses, i.e, there exists $u$ and $v$ satisfying that $ur=1=vr$ but $u \neq v$. Then, it has infinitely many left-inverses.
I know of this approach. Yet, while trying to prove me myself, I though of considering elements of the forms $$u_n=u+(u-v)^n.$$ If I am not mistaken $$u_nr = ur+(u-v)^{(n-1)}(u-v)r=1,$$ but I cannot prove that $(u-v)^n \neq (u-v)^m$ whenever $n \neq m$. So, that made me think that maybe it is not true. Also, it would make sense it's false since the common proof considers a more complicated $u_n$. But I cannot think of a counterexample right now, any help?