Consider the ring $\mathcal O$ of all algebraic integers and a subring $\mathcal A\subset \mathcal O$. If $u\in\mathcal A$ is invertible in $\mathcal O$, then is the inverse of $u$ necessarily in $\mathcal A$?
In other words, if $u\in\mathcal A$ is invertible in $\mathcal O$, then is $u$ invertible in $\mathcal A$?
This seems like a very fundamental question. Are there any contexts I could refer to so I could better understand the related topics?