I know for $n=2,$ it's $1$, for $n=3$, it's $1/4$. But how to generalize and then prove? Pls let me know if you're unable to see the image attached.
Let $k\geq2$ be a natural number. Find the value of $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{1}{n(n+1)(n+2)..(n+k-1)}$
Show using above result that $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{1}{n^k}$ converges for k=2,3,4,..