I'm wondering that $\int_{x \in\mathbb{R}}e^{-\pi \frac{x^2}{m^2}} \ \mathrm{d}x $ is always less than $\sum_{x\in \mathbb{Z}} e^{-\pi \frac{x^2}{m^2}}$ for all real number $m > 0 $.
I know that the former is the Gaussian integral and $\int_{x \in\mathbb{R}}e^{-\pi \frac{x^2}{m^2}} \ \mathrm{d}x= m$, but the latter is the discrete gaussian summation on integer. I'm not sure if it converges to some function of $m$ or lager than $m$.
I tend to believe the former is less than the latter, for i test a set of value of $m$ in $Maple$ and found that the gap get smaller when $m$ grows.
besides, i found in wikipedia $\sum_{x\in \mathbb{Z}} e^{-\pi {x^2}} = \frac{\pi^{1/4}}{\Gamma{(3/4)}} $https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_mathematical_series, but i could not find the proof.
Thanks!