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Let $(M, d)$ be a metric space, $x, z \in M$ and $a > 0$. Prove that the set $A = \{y \in M : d(x, y) + d(y, z) < a\}$ is open.

I'm having a fair bit of trouble trying to find how to use triangle inequality here. Specifically, if I let $r = a - d(x, y) - d(y, z)$ I can't cancel enough terms to get $d(q, y) < a$. For example \begin{align*} d(q, y) \leq d(x, q) + d(x, y) \leq d(x, y) + d(y, q) + d(x, z) + d(z, y) < a + d(x, z) \end{align*} What am I missing, or is my approach just wrong? I've considered letting $r = a - \min\{d(y, x), d(y,z)\}$ and I believe that this works as far as the inequality is concerned but I'm not sure that it actually proves the statement.

  • Try half of your original $r$ instead. – Empy2 Sep 05 '23 at 04:02
  • You could also try to show that $y\mapsto d(x,y)+d(y,z)$ is continuous as an alternative approach. – Matthew H. Sep 05 '23 at 04:28
  • @Empy2 Am I also supposed to start with $d(x, z) \leq \ldots$? I can't get rid of the mess after $a + d(x, z)$ in the first inequality but $d(x, z)$ simplifies well by itself. And does this still imply $\exists B_{r}(y) \subseteq A$? – throwaway Sep 05 '23 at 04:47
  • @throwaway I have given answer... try to understand this and let me know if you have any further questions or if you understood it fully... thank you – Praveen Kumaran P Sep 05 '23 at 06:02

2 Answers2

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Knowing that any metric is continuous with respect to its own topology, in particular, the functions $f(y) = d(x, y) $ and $g(y) = d(z, y)$ are continuous, and then so is their sum $h(y) = f(y) + g(y)$. Hence, $A = h^{-1}\left(-1, a\right)$ is open, being the inverse image of an open set (note that the $-1$ was an arbitrary choice, we only need a negative number at the left end of the interval to include $0$ in our interval).

User
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Simple We need to prove that $A$ is open. That is we need to prove $\forall y \in A, \exists r>0$ such that $B(y,r) \subset A$

So given $y$ we need to find $r$ such that $d(y,q)<r \implies q \in A$

so for given $y$,

Let $d(x,y)+d(y,z)=s$

We need to prove that $$d(x,q)+d(q,z)<a$$, Now we are going to work backwards, try to estimate this and find an $r$ such that the above inequality gets satisfied for any $q \in B(y,r)$

$$d(x,q)+d(q,z) \leq d(x,y)+d(y,q)+d(q,y)+d(y,z)$$ $$=d(x,y)+d(y,z)+2d(y,q)$$ $$=s+2d(y,q)$$ We want this to be less than $a$, so $2d(y,q)+s<a$

Which means $d(y,q) < \frac{a-s}{2}$

So if it happens that distance between $y$ and $q$ is less than this($\frac{a-s}{2}$) ,then q belongs to $A$. So, take your $$r=\frac{a-s}{2}$$ i.e$$r=\frac{a-d(x,y)-d(y,z)}{2}$$

Now you can reverse this process and verify this $r$ works...

But you tried proving $d(y,q)<a$, which is not you intended to prove... it is a mistake...

If you have any doubts, Let me know, I will try to help.

This kind of Working backwards helps in many places in Analysis, This is what proper analysis and estimates means... Learn this trick well...If you want to learn such kind of Analysis, let me know in the comments, I will show you...

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    Thank you so much. I was obviously pretty confused on what exactly I needed to solve for. This was very informative. – throwaway Sep 05 '23 at 06:11