An answer in this post got me wondering: Suppose $A \subseteq \mathbb R$ is Borel measurable, and let $B = \mathbb R \setminus A$. Is it possible that, for every nonempty open interval $I \subseteq \mathbb R$, we could have $\lambda(A \cap I) > 0$ and $\lambda(B \cap I) > 0$, where $\lambda$ is the Lebesgue measure? Please provide an example or proof of impossibility.
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2Yes, its possible, this actually just got asked the other day, see https://math.stackexchange.com/a/4762446/1210477 – M W Sep 03 '23 at 22:49